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And the reply to that:

"This argument is ridiculous, since it’s missing the concept of intent. The Home Secretary clearly had no intent. That’s why he/she wasn’t charged."



And the reply to that is that there is no criteria requiring intent in this law.


It appears that way. Mens rea is a legal concept applied to some of common law (although not always effectively).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mens_rea#England

EDIT: British common law divides up laws between those requiring intent and those that don't.


And the reply to that:

The UK law in question does not require intent (mens rea).


So a law which you have to prove yourself innocent and can be applied to anyone - but the police get to decide who to apply it to.

nope, can't see any problem with that.




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